The Bible was written in verse so it would not be changed.
A poem cannot be changed without changing its meaning. Even if one word is replaced with another, it will not mean the same. Of course, I’m talking of masterfully written verse, such as we find in the Scriptures.
Therefore, when you have a translation of the Old Testament Scriptures from the Ancient Aramaic (or Ancient Hebrew), the poetic structure is going to be lost, because the translators will attempt to capture the meaning and not reproduce the rhyme or the meter of the poetry. Such is the case with the Greek and Latin translations; they have not retained the poetic structure of the verses.
But why were the Scriptures recorded in verse if they were to be translated and used by all nations and tongues? I believe they were recorded in verse so as to preserve the exact meanings of the doctrines and oracles recorded by the inspired writers.
The Western translators say that the Old Testament Scriptures were recorded in verse — that’s why we quote chapter and verse — and that they were written in Hebrew; but why do they say that the New Testament was originated in Greek? Don’t they know that the New Testament is also written in verse? Well, if they knew that, why isn’t the Greek New Testament written in verse? As it stands, the Greek and Latin New Testaments are not in verse; their texts have no rhyme or meter like the Ancient Aramaic does!
For example, the Gospel of John, in its entirety, is one poem. It is a beautifully written poem. How can it be said that the New Testament was not originated in the Ancient Aramaic language when it is all in verse? The Lord Himself quoted the Book of Isaiah and Jeremiah, and they are both complete poems from the first word to the last. The Lord Himself delivered all His teachings in perfect verse. His words are preserved in verse only in the Ancient Aramaic. How can the Western Churches claim that the New Testament was originated in Greek?
Are they going to deny that the New Testament was written in verse? Are they going to say that the word “verse” implies only that the text is divided into sentences, which are simply numbered for easy reference? Then why does the Ancient Aramaic all rhyme and have meter?
No, in fact, all the Scriptures were originated in the Ancient Aramaic language, and that was by design, so that later generations and all the nations of the world would never be able to alter a single word of truth.
To prove this, I have made this video commentary on the Gospel of John, using verses 6 through 14 of the Gospel of John.